Friday, November 10, 2017

C9010-251 Power Systems with POWER8 Scale-out Technical Sales Skills V1

Number of questions: 63
Number of questions to pass: 40
Time allowed: 120 mins
Status: Live

This exam consists of 4 sections described below.

Section 1 - Power Systems Architecture and Product Family 29%
Identify and differentiate models and features within the Power Systems Scale-out product family, including I/O, memory, and processor.
Compare POWER7/7 plus to POWER8 for migration purposes.
Articulate Scale-out server Reliability, Availability and Serviceability (RAS) capabilities.
Given a customer's networking and storage requirements, identify and configure the appropriate I/O and storage features.
Describe the benefits of POWER processor architecture, including SMT, cache, balanced performance, clock speed, EnergyScale, CAPI, etc.
Differentiate between memory optimization technologies for Power Systems (for example: Active Memory Expansion (AME), Active Memory Sharing (AMS)), identifying the configuration requirements of each on the systems which support them.
Given a scenario, describe why Power Systems is the preferred platform for a CAMS (Cloud, Analytics, Mobile, Social) solution, including optimization for DB2, Cognos, SPSS, etc.
Determine processor requirements for micropartitioning, shared processor pools, dedicated and shared dedicated processors, etc.
Position POWER8 Scale-out servers with regards to price performance, workload consolidation, virtualization without limits, design for function, etc. (Compare and contrast with other POWER as well as x86 servers).
Identify features/function/capability of SR-IOV.

Section 2 - Virtualization 27%
Given a scenario, recognize when to configure physical I/O, virtual I/O or a combination of both.
Describe storage hardware connectivity (Fibre Channel or SAS) options and types of virtualization (NPIV, vSCSI).
Describe the value of shared storage pools (SSP).
Identify the configuration requirements for Live Partition Mobility.
Given a scenario, describe Power Systems' ability to share resources including processors, I/O and memory.
Describe the business advantages of virtualization from a technical perspective.
Differentiate capabilities of Power Hypervisor offerings (e.g., PowerVM, PowerKVM).
Position Power Hypervisor offerings (PowerVM, PowerKVM) compared to competitive offerings (VMWare, Hyper-V, Xen Server, KVM on x86).
Design an appropriate virtualization system management solution (consider: HMC, IVM, PowerVC, Cloud Manager with OpenStack).
Design an appropriate console solution (consider migration options, operating systems and virtualization, and high availability: HMC, ASMI, Putty, LAN Console).
Compare and contrast PowerVC features with VMware.
Discuss the offerings available for OS virtualization (e.g., WPAR).

Section 3 - Design Solution to Customer Requirements 29%
Given a set of customer requirements, differentiate the POWER8 Scale-out server capabilities for each of the scale-out servers, and make a recommendation that best meets their need(s).
Given a set of business requirements, create an optimal technology solution.
Incorporate appropriate existing hardware in a new configuration.
Evaluate storage requirements, disk protection options (RAID-5,6,10, mirroring), storage tiering, and placement (e.g., internal disk, SAN, Flash), appropriate to OS environments.
Given customer requirements, design a single or dual VIO server solution (including using NPIV and vSCSI to host storage). Consider requisites, corequisites and limitations which may impact future requirements.
Given customer requirements such as RTO (Recovery Time Objective) and RPO (Recovery Point Objective), design an HA or DR environment at a high level (e.g., synchronous vs. asynchronous, Copy Services offering, Global Mirror vs. Metro Mirror), including selecting the appropriate PowerHA Edition and capabilities.
Given a scenario, identify the correct planning tools and information resources such as eConfig, System Planning Tool (SPT), Workload Estimator (WLE) and Sizing Guide, Energy Estimator, and System Performance Reports to confirm that the requirements of the solution have been met.
Evaluate networking requirements needed to manage redundancy, vLAN, security, bandwidth (CPU requirements, network settings) and sharing, including determining the correct adapter type(s) and quantity.
Discuss a customer's requirements with regards to TCA and TCO (e.g., software licensing relative to cores).
Identify strategic activities and technologies (e.g. CAPI, OpenPOWER Foundation) that allow Power Systems to be positioned in open initiatives (Google, TYAN, Mellanox, Samsung, NVIDIA).
Identify solution editions (CAMS: IBM Solution for Hadoop - Power Systems Edition, IBM Solution for Analytics - Power Systems Edition, BLU Acceleration- Power Systems Edition, IBM SmartCloud Entry on Power Systems, IBM Power Systems Solution Edition for Scale-out Cloud).
Identify environment considerations (e.g., power, UPS, space, racks, etc.).
Defend the solution against competitive technical claims (e.g., cost per VM, price per watt, etc.)

Section 4 - Software and Operating System Considerations 15%
Given a customer's requirements, identify which operating system (or mix of operating systems) is appropriate and defend the choice (AIX, IBM i, or Linux).
Describe Power Systems licensing considerations with regard to transfers, sub-capacity licensing, etc. (operating systems, PowerVM, etc.).
Recognize the basic security strengths in AIX, Linux, IBM i, and PowerVM and discuss PowerSC offerings.
Given a customer's requirements, describe which Power Systems Software product, and Edition, is appropriate, including PowerHA, PowerVM, and PowerVC.
Given a customer's requirements, identify which IBM Software Group product category is appropriate, including Rational, Tivoli, WebSphere, DB2, Cognos/SPSS, etc.
Identify supported Linux distributions (RedHat, Ubuntu, SUSE) and their features (including Endian / portability considerations).
Question 1
What is the main function of the P0WER8 CAPI feature?

A. It improves memory bandwidth.
B. It improves cache coherency.
C. It increases the clock frequency speed.
D. It connects auxiliary processors such as GPUs.

Answer: D


Question 2
A customer with POWERS processor-based systems needs an application server that
supports environment from single server and medium-sized configurations to large
deployments requiring web tier clustering over multiple application server instances.
Which IBM product family will satisfy the customer's requirements?

A. Web Sphere
B. Information Management
C. Cognos
D. Rational

Answer: A

Question 3
Which server is a Linux-only POWER8 single socket rack system?

A. S824
B. S822L
C. S812L
D. S814

Answer: C


Question 4
A customer wants to virtualize their network adapter and use the least amount of CPU
cycles and memory overhead in their VIO Server.
Which technology should they implement?

A. SR-IOV
B. NPIV
C. Shared Ethernet Adapter
D. EtherChannel

Answer: C

Wednesday, October 11, 2017

C5050-100 Foundations of SoftLayer V1

Number of questions: 64
Number of questions to pass: 38
Time allowed: 90 mins
The test consists of 6 sections containing a total of approximately 64 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1: SoftLayer Introduction 11%
Cloud Funamentals
SoftLayer Overview
Understanding AWS
SoftLayer Value Selling and TCO
Interacting with SoftLayer

Section 2: SoftLayer Core Offerings 34%
SoftLayer Offerings Overview
SoftLayer Core Offerings - Bare Metal
SoftLayer Core Offerings - Customer Portal
SoftLayer Core Offerings - Hybrid Hosting
SoftLayer Core Offerings - Managed Hosting Services
SoftLayer Core Offerings - Virtual Servers
SoftLayer Security and Compliance

Section 3: SoftLayer Ancillary Offerings 16%
SoftLayer Load Balancing
SoftLayer Security and Firewalls
SoftLayer Monitoring
SoftLayer Storage and Backup

Section 4: SoftLayer Advanced Offerings 21%
SoftLayerGPu Servers
SoftLayer Quatastor
SoftLayer NetScaler VPX
SoftLayer Vyatta
Getting Started with AutoScale
SoftLayer IP Network
SoftLayer Disaster Recovery

Section 5: SoftLayer Configuration 2%
Interacting with SoftLayer

Section 6: SoftLayer Workloads and Solutions 16%
Key SoftLayer Workloads
SoftLayer Solution Diagramming
Architecture Decision and SoftLayer

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: 50001801
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
The new IBM Certified SoftLayer Solution Advisor Certificate is targeted at Cloud and SoftLayer Sellers, Cloud Advisors and Cloud Architects and tests their knowledge and skills on SoftLayer's Data, Storage, Networking and Security capabilities.
To attain the IBM Certified SoftLayer Solution Advisor certification, candidates must possess the skills outlined under Recommended Prerequisite Skills below and pass one exam C5050-100. To gain additional knowledge and skills, and prepare for the tests based on the job role and test objectives, take the link to the test below, and refer to the Test Preparation tab.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills:
Knowledge of SoftLayer capabilities in an e-commerce context
Understand what SoftLayer has available (compute, storage and network options, security, monitoring and management)
Ability to leverage SoftLayer differentiators
Ability to analyze workload needs and make architecture choices

Requirements
This certification requires 1 exam


Sunday, August 20, 2017

JN0-680 JNCIP-DC Exam Objectives

This list provides a general view of the skill set required to successfully complete the specified certification exam. Topics listed are subject to change.

Data Center Deployment or Management
Describe Zero Touch Provisioning concepts
DHCP
Monitoring
Analytics
Describe ISSU/NSSU concepts
Requirements
Monitoring
Order of operations

Multichassis LAG
Describe MC-LAG concepts
Positioning scenarios
ICCP
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting MC-LAG
Troubleshooting tools

Mixed Virtual Chassis
Describe mixed Virtual Chassis concepts
Mixed VC PFE scaling
Mixed VC cabling
Provisioning a mixed VC
Mastership election
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting mixed Virtual Chassis technologies
Troubleshooting tools
Processes or components

Virtual Chassis Fabric
Describe VCF concepts
Mastership election
Physical layout
VCF control plane
Mixed VCF
VCF forwarding plane
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting VCFs
VCF management
VCF provisioning options
VCF management

IP Fabric
Describe IP Fabric concepts
3-stage Clos architecture
IP Fabric routing
IP Fabric scaling
IP Fabric best practices
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting IP Fabrics

VXLAN
Describe VXLAN concepts
L2VPN control planes
Multicast control plane
Data plane
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting VXLAN

EVPN VXLAN Signaling
Describe EVPN concepts
Route types
MP-BGP
MAC Learning
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting EVPNs

Data Center Interconnect
Describe DCI concepts
Interconnect network types
Intraconnect networks
Stitching
EVPN-signaled VXLAN for DCI
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting DCI
QUESTION 1
You are deploying 50 QFX5100 switches in your data center. You are asked to explain the benefits of using ZTP during your deployment of these devices.
What is a benefit of this deployment?

A. You must use DHCP options to provide Junos installation packages to all devices.
B. You must use DHCP options to provide the transfer mode used for pulling files from a storage server.
C. You can use DHCP options to push the configuration files to all devices.
D. You can use DHCP options to indicate which Junos version the switches should be running.

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
What is the endpoint of a VXLAN tunnel?

A. DLCI
B. VTEP
C. LSR
D. VCF

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your server administrator asks you to preserve the inner VLAN tags of the frames coming from a Layer 2 VXLAN Gateway of the EVPN-enabled segment.
Which two parameters must you add to the configuration to allow the VLAN tag to be passed? (Choose two.)

A. layer2-protocol-tunneling
B. decapsulate-accept-inner-vlan
C. dotlq-tunneling
D. encapsulate-inner-vlan

Answer: B,D

Thursday, August 17, 2017

C2150-212 IBM Security AppScan SAST Source V9.0.1 Analysis Fundamentals

Test information:
Number of questions: 53
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 62%
Languages: English, French, Latin American Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil)

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Associate Analyst - Security AppScan SAST Source V9.0.1

The test consists of eight sections containing a total of approximately 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - Key Concepts of AppScan SAST V9.0.1 (8%)
Describe static analysis.
Compare dynamic vs static testing.
Describe basic requirements to run a scan.

Section 2 - AppScan SAST V9.0.1 Components (10%)
Describe the AppScan server.
Describe AppScan clients.
Describe the AppScan Enterprise server.

Section 3 - Views and Perspectives (15%)
Describe main perspectives (tabs).
Describe views of configuration perspective.
Describe views of analysis perspective.
Describe views of triage perspective.

Section 4 - Scanning Methodology and Vulnerability Analysis (12%)
Describe data flow, sources, and sink.
Describe how method signatures in code are tagged/marked up.
Describe the phases of a code scan.
Describe supported technologies.
Describe the limitations of SAST.

Section 5 - Basics of Application Security (12%)
Describe the need for static code analysis.
Describe common vulnerability types.
Describe basic concept of input validation.

Section 6 - Scan Configuration and Application Preferences (15%)
Describe application onboarding.
Describe the application and project properties.
Describe different scan configuration templates.
Describe source file exclusions.

Section 7 - Triage Results / Issue Management and Reporting (20%)
Identify key or necessary triage tasks for SAST.
Demonstrate understanding of resolving false positives.
Demonstrate understanding of issue classification.
Identify the different types of Findings Reports.
Describe saving results.

Section 8 - Basic Troubleshooting (8%)
Describe errors during compilation and how they effect code coverage.
Describe the purpose of the errors console.
Describe the project validate feature.

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This entry level certification is intended for Associate Analysts who know the fundamental concepts of and work with IBM Security AppScan SAST V9.0.1 through hands-on experience. (This certification is also for entry level application developers, application architects and security architects.)

These Associate Analysts can describe the fundamental concepts and product components, understand basic application security, scanning methodology, vulnerability analysis, triaging results and issue management. They can also configure an application and run a standard code scan, recognize causes for common false positive and false negative results, and can basic troubleshoot.

These Associate Analysts are able to complete tasks with little to no assistance from documentation, peers or support.

To attain the IBM Certified Associate Analyst - Security AppScan SAST Source V9.0.1, candidates must pass 1 test. To gain additional knowledge and skills, and prepare for this test based on the job role and test objectives, take the link to the test below, and refer to the Test Preparation tab.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Basic knowledge of:
application architectures
application development
general programming concepts
vulnerability remediation

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

Test(s) required:
Click on the link(s) below to see test details, test objectives, suggested training and sample tests.

Test C2150-212 - IBM Security AppScan SAST Source V9.0.1 Analysis Fundamentals

This test:
contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.  is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.


Friday, June 30, 2017

Exam RC0-N06 CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam for Continuing Education

Eligibility Candidates MUST have:
An active Network+ CE certification earned by passing exam N10-005 or earlier.
Received an email from CompTIA containing a Private Access Code (PAC).

Exam Description
The CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam covers these domains:

1.0 Network Architecture (17% of total)
2.0 Network Operations (15% of total)
3.0 Network Security (20% of total)
4.0 Troubleshooting (28% of total)
5.0 Industry standards, practices, and network theory (20% of total)

Number of Questions 45
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response)
Length of Test 75 Minutes
Passing Score 7​20 (on a scale of 100-900)

Only candidates with an active Network+ CE certification will receive CEU credit.
Passing the exam will automatically renew your existing Network+ CE. Please allow 1-3 days for your record to be updated.
INTRODUCTION
The  CompTIA Network

Re certification  Exam is one way for CompTIA certified professionals to keep their Network+ certification active. A CompTIA Network+ certification earned on or after January 1st, 2011 is valid for three years from the date the certification was earned. The certification must be renewed within three years in order for the individual to remain certified. To remain certified, individuals may:

Re-take (and pass) the current certification exam (N10-006)
Participate in continuing education activities

Take (and pass) the Network+ recertification exam (RC0-N06)

The CompTIA Network+ Recertification Exam RC0-N06 bridges the competencies measured by the Network+ N10-005 series and the N10-006 series. The exam (RC0-N06) blueprint includes the objectives new to the N10-006 series and also assesses the highest weighted competencies that appear on the exam (i.e., the knowledge and skills rated by SMEs as most relevant for on-the-job -performance).

NOTE: Availability of RC0-N06 is LIMITED TO THOSE who have kept their Network+ certification active and have not taken and passed the current N10-006 series exam.
CompTIA Network+ is accredited by ANSI to show compliance with the ISO 17024 Standard and, as such, undergoes regular reviews and updates to the exam objectives. The following CompTIA Network+ Recertification RC0-N06 exam objectives result from subject matter expert workshops and industry-wide survey results regarding the skills and knowledge required of an entry-level IT technical support professional.

This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and example content. Example topics and concepts are included to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a
comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.

Candidates are encouraged to use this document to guide their studies. The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they are represented. The CompTIA Network+ RC0-N06 exam is based on these objectives

QUESTION 1 - (Topic 1)
A technician, Joe, needs to troubleshoot a recently installed NIC. He decides to ping the local loopback address. Which of the following is a valid IPv4 loopback address?

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 172.16.1.1
D. 192.168.1.1

Answer: B

Explanation:
The loopback address is a special IP address that is designated for the software loopback interface of a computer. The loopback interface has no hardware associated with it, and it
is not physically connected to a network. The loopback address causes any messages sent to it to be returned to the sending system. The loopback address allows client software to communicate with server software on the same computer. Users specify the loopback address which willpoint back to the computer's TCP/IP network configuration.
In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1.
In IPv6, the loopback address is 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1, more commonly notated as follows. ::1


QUESTION 2 - (Topic 1)
A technician needs to set aside addresses in a DHCP pool so that certain servers always receive the same address. Which of the following should be configured?

A. Leases
B. Helper addresses
C. Scopes
D. Reservations

Answer: D

Explanation:
A reservation is used in DHCP to ensure that a computer always receives the same IP address. To create a reservation, you need to know the hardware MAC address ofthe network interface card that should receive the IP address.
For example, if Server1 has MAC address of 00:A1:FB:12:45:4C and that computer should always get 192.168.0.7 as its IP address, you can map the MAC address of Server1 with the IP address to configure reservation.


QUESTION 3 - (Topic 1)
A technician, Joe, has been tasked with assigning two IP addresses to WAN interfaces on connected routers. In order to conserve address space, which of the following subnet masks should Joe use for this subnet?

A. /24
B. /32
C. /28
D. /29
E. /30

Answer: E

Explanation:
An IPv4 addressconsists bits. The first x number of bits in the address is the network address and the remaining bits are used for the host addresses. The subnet mask defines how many bits form the network address and from that, we can calculate how many bits are used for the host addresses.
In this question, the /30 subnet mask dictates that the first 30 bits of the IP address are used for network addressing and the remaining 2 bits are used for host addressing. The formula to calculate the number of hosts in a subnet is 2n - 2. The "n" in the host's formula represents the number of bits used for host addressing. If we apply the formula (22 – 2), a /30 subnet mask will provide 2 IP addresses.


QUESTION 4 - (Topic 1)
Which of the following is MOST likely to use an RJ-11 connector to connect a computer to an ISP using a POTS line?

A. Multilayer switch
B. Access point
C. Analog modem
D. DOCSIS modem

Answer: C

Explanation:
Before ADSL broadband connections became the standard for Internet connections, computers used analog modems to connect to the Internet. By today’s standards, analog modems are very slow typically offering a maximum bandwidth Kbps.
An analog modem (modulator/demodulator) converts (modulates) a digital signal from a computerto an analog signal to be transmitted over a standard (POTS) phone line. The modem then converts (demodulates) the incoming analog signal to digital data to be used by the computer.
An analog modem uses an RJ-11 connector to connect to a phone line (POTS)in the same way a phone does.


QUESTION 5 - (Topic 1)
A host has been assigned the address 169.254.0.1. This is an example of which of the following address types?

A. APIPA
B. MAC
C. Static
D. Public

Answer: A

Explanation:
APIPA stands for Automatic Private IP Addressing and is a feature of Windows operating systems. When a client computer is configured to use automatic addressing (DHCP), APIPA assigns a class B IP address from 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 to the client when a DHCP server is unavailable.
When a client computer configured to use DHCP boots up, it first looks for a DHCP server to provide the client with IP address and subnet mask. If the client is unable to contact a DHCP server, it uses APIPA to automatically configure itself with an IP address from a range that has been reserved especially for Microsoft. The client also configures itself with a default class Bsubnet mask .255.0.0. The client will use the self-configured IP address until a DHCP server becomes available.


QUESTION 6 - (Topic 1)
A network engineer needs to set up a topology that will not fail if there is an outage on a single piece of the topology. However, the computers need to wait to talk on the network to avoid congestions. Which of the following topologies would the engineer implement?

A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. Mesh

Answer: C

Explanation:
Token Ring networks are quite rare today. Token Ring networks use the ring topology. Despite being called a Ring topology, the ring is logical and the physical network structure often forms a ‘star’ topology with all computers on the network connecting to a central multistation access unit (MAU). The MAU implements the logical ring by transmitting signals to each node in turn and waiting for the node to send them back before it transmits to the next node. Therefore, although the cables are physically connected in a star, the data path takes the form of a ring. If any computer or network cable fails in a token ring network, the remainder of the network remains functional. The MAU has the intelligence to isolate the failed segment.
To ensure that the computers need to wait to talk on the network to avoid congestions, a Token Ring network uses a ‘token’. The token continually passes around the network until a computer needs to send data. The computer then takes the token and transmits the data beforereleasing the token. Only a computer in possession of the token can transmit data onto the network.

Friday, June 2, 2017

Exam 70-346 Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements

Published: February 17, 2014
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), Chinese (Traditional), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil), Spanish
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft Office 365
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

As of June 30, 2016, this exam includes content covering the latest updates and features of Office 365. To learn more about these changes and how they affect the skills measured, please download and review the exam 70-346 change document.

Provision Office 365 (15–20%)
Provision tenants
Configure the tenant name, tenant region, initial global administrator; manage tenant subscriptions; manage the licensing model; configure tenant for new features and updates
Add and configure custom domains
Specify domain name, confirm ownership, specify domain purpose, set default domain, and move ownership of DNS to Office 365
Plan a pilot
Designate pilot users; identify workloads that don’t require migration; run the Office 365 Health, Readiness, and Connectivity Checks; run IdFix; create a test plan or use case, and connect existing email accounts for pilot users; understand service descriptions and planning to onboard users to Office 365; configure connected accounts

Plan and implement networking and security in Office 365 (15–20%)
Configure DNS records for services
Create DNS records for Exchange Online, Skype for Business Online, and SharePoint Online
Enable client connectivity to Office 365
Configure proxy to allow client access to Office 365 URLs, configure firewalls for outbound port access to Office 365, recommend bandwidth, configure Internet connectivity for clients, deploy desktop setup for previous versions of Office clients
Administer Microsoft Azure Rights Management (RM)
Activate rights management, configure Office integration with rights management, assign roles for rights management, enable recovery of protected documents
Manage administrator roles in Office 365
Implement a permission model; create or revoke assignment of administrative roles or the administrative model; determine and assign global administrator, billing administrator, user administrator, and delegated administrator; control password resets

Preparation resources
Create DNS records for Office 365 when you manage your DNS records
Assigning admin roles in Office 365

Manage cloud identities (15–20%)
Configure password management
Set expiration policy, password complexity, password resets in Administration Center
Manage user and security groups
Import users using bulk import (CSV), soft delete, Administration Center, and multi-factor authentication
Manage cloud identities with Windows PowerShell
Configure passwords to never expire, bulk update of user properties, bulk user creation, Azure Active Directory cmdlets, bulk user license management, hard delete users

Preparation resources
Password policy for Office 365
User account management
Manage Azure AD using Windows PowerShell

Implement and manage identities by using Azure AD Connect (15–20%)
Prepare on-premises Active Directory for Azure AD Connect
Plan for non-routable domain names, clean up existing objects, plan for filtering Active Directory, implement support for multiple forests
Set up Azure AD Connect tool
Implement soft match filtering and identify synchronized attributes, password sync, and installation requirements
Manage Active Directory users and groups with Azure AD Connect in place
Delete (soft delete), create, modify users and groups with Azure AD Connect in place, schedule and force synchronization

Preparation resources
Prepare for directory synchronization
Synchronize your directories

Implement and manage federated identities for single sign-on (SSO) (15–20%)

Plan requirements for Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
Plan namespaces and certificates, plan AD FS internal topologies and dependencies, plan WAP/AD FS proxy topologies, network requirements, multi-factor authentication, and access filtering using claims rules
Install and manage AD FS servers
Create AD FS service account, configure farm or stand-alone settings, add additional servers, convert from standard to federated domain, manage certificate lifecycle
Install and manage WAP/AD FS proxy servers
Set up perimeter network name resolution, install required Windows roles and features, set up certificates, configure WAP/AD FS proxy settings, set custom proxy forms login page, switch between federated authentication and password sync

Preparation resources

Plan your AD FS deployment
Checklist: Use AD FS to implement and manage single sign-on
Administering Office 365 Jump Start (03): DirSync, SSO, and AD FS

Monitor and troubleshoot Office 365 availability and usage (15–20%)

Analyze reports
Analyze service reports, mail protection reports, analyze Office 365 audit log reports, analyze portal email hygiene reports
Monitor service health
Monitor health using RSS feed, use service health dashboard (including awareness of planned maintenance, service updates, and historical data), Office 365 Management Pack for System Center Operations Manager, and Windows PowerShell cmdlets
Isolate service interruption
Create a service request; determine connection issues using the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer (RCA), Microsoft Lync Connectivity Analyzer tool, and Microsoft Connectivity Analyzer tool; determine availability issues using the hybrid free/busy troubleshooter; determine client configuration issues using Office 365 Client Performance Analyzer and Microsoft Support and Recovery Assistant for Office 365

Preparation resources
Reporting features and troubleshooting tools
Service health
QUESTION 1
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365.
You need to estimate the post-migration network traffic.
Which tool should you use?

A. Lync 2013 Bandwidth Calculator
B. Process Monitor
C. Microsoft Network Monitor
D. Microsoft OnRamp Readiness tool

Answer: A

Explanation:
Office 365 includes Lync 2013.
With this latest version of the Microsoft Lync Server 2010 and 2013 Bandwidth Calculator, you can enter information about your users and the Lync Server features that you want to deploy, and the Bandwidth Calculator will determine bandwidth requirements for the WAN that connects sites in your deployment. The accompanying Bandwidth Calculator User Guide describes the recommended process for estimating your WAN bandwidth needs for Lync client real-time traffic.
Reference: Lync Server 2010 and 2013 Bandwidth Calculator Version 2.0
http://blogs.technet.com/b/nexthop/archive/2013/06/07/lync-server-2010-and-2013-
bandwidth-calculator-version-2-0.aspx

QUESTION 2
A company has an Office 365 tenant that has an Enterprise E1 subscription. The company has offices in several different countries.
You need to restrict Office 365 services for existing users by location.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?

A. Set-MsolUser
B. Redo-MsolProvisionUser
C. Set-MsolUserLicense
D. Set-MsolUserPrincipalName
E. Convert-MsolFederatedUser
F. Set-MailUser
G. Set-LinkedUser
H. New-MsolUser

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Set-MsolUser cmdlet is used to update a user object.
Example: The following command sets the location (country) of this user. The country must be a two-letter ISO code. This can be set for synced users as well as managed users. Set-MsolUser -UserPrincipalName user@contoso.com -UsageLocation "CA"
Note:
Some organizations may want to create policies that limit access to Microsoft Office 365 services, depending on where the client resides.
Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 provides a way for organizations to configure these types of policies. Office 365 customers using Single Sign-On (SSO) who require these policies can now use client access policy rules to restrict access based on the location of the computer or device that is making the request. Customers using Microsoft Online Services cloud User IDs cannot implement these restrictions at this time.
Reference: Limiting Access to Office 365 Services Based on the Location of the Client https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh526961(v=ws.10).aspx
Reference: Set-MsolUser https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn194136.aspx

Friday, March 17, 2017

C2040-951 IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Update

Test information:
Number of questions: 50
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 76%
Languages: English, Japanese

Exam 956: IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Update

Description: Covers Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 material as it relates to these competency areas:
Install and Configure
Manage and Maintain
Security

Install and Configure
Creating Dynamic Policies
Deploying a centrally managed Widget Catalog
Implementing Domino Attachment and Object Service (DAOS)
Implementing Domino Configuration Tuner
Implementing Domino Roaming for Standard Clients
Implementing Early Authentication
Implementing iNotes Redirector Changes
Implementing Lotus iNotes enhancements
Implementing Lotus Notes on Citrix
Implementing Lotus Traveler

Manage and Maintain
Implementing Console Log Mirroring
Implementing Image Compression
Implementing Lotus Traveler Policies
Understanding iNotes Redirector Changes
Understanding Router Optimizations
Utilizing Administration Process statistics
Utilizing Domino Attachment and Object Service (DAOS)
Utilizing Domino Configuration Tuner
Utilizing Domino server commands
Utilizing Dynamic Policies
Utilizing the Widget Catalog

Security
Deploying Lotus Traveler Security Features
Deploying the ID Vault
Deploying xPages Security
Implementing Shared Login
Implementing the ID Vault
Managing Shared Login
Managing the ID Vault

 

QUESTION 1
Darren is working with the Outline view on a new XPage. He drags a button control so that it is above an
edit box control. What effect does this have on the XPage in the Design editor?

A. The button control will move above and to the left of edit box control.
B. There will be no effect until Darren saves the Xpage, then the button control will move above and to the
left of edit box control.
C. There will be no effect until Darren clicks the Synchronize Navigator with Editor tab in the application
navigator, then the button control willmove above and to the left of edit box control.
D. There will be no effect until Darren clicks the Synchronize Navigator with Editor tab in the Outline view,
then the button control will moveabove and to the left of edit box control.

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Abbas has imported the screen.css stylesheet into his application. He has discovered that he needs to
edit the properties of some of the classes in the CSS. What steps can he follow to make the needed
changes and save the CSS changes within the application?

A. From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets. Double-click
screen.css to use the built-in CSSeditor.
B. From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets. Click
screen.css and in the Outline view select aclass to use the built-in CSS editor.
C. From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. Fromthe Design tab of the Properties view, double-click a CSS class to
edit its properties.
D. From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. Fromthe Web Properties tab of the Properties view, double-click a CSS
class to edit its properties.

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Janet uses Domino Designer's Dynamic Help feature to clarify something. What kind of help will she get?

A. An animated, talking icon that offers to assist her.
B. A wizard that follows a support tree to narrow down the answer to her question.
C. A personalized search interface that remembers all of her previous searches and their results.
D. A context-sensitive help view that constantly updates a list of possible relevant topics based on what
she's doing.

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Joshua would like to have a cookie set on his Movie Rental XPage before it loads on the browser. Which
view would Joshua use to add this functionality?

A. Events view
B. Controls view
C. Properties view
D. Applications view

Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Carlos added an edit box control to his registration XPage. He wants to make the field a required field with
a message displaying to the user if the field is left blank. Where would he add these additional features to
the edit box control?

A. Editor
B. Events view
C. Properties view
D. Controls palette

Answer: C

Monday, February 13, 2017

C2040-402 Administering IBM Connections 4.0

Test information:
Number of questions: 69
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 69%
Test languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified System Administrator - Connections 4.0

Exam 402: Administering IBM Connections 4.0

Exam Competencies

Description: Covers IBM Connections material as it relates to these competency areas:
Architecture
Installation and Migration
Security
General Administration
Core IBM Connections Configuration
Additional Configuration
Customization
Integration
Troubleshooting

Architecture
Understand database environment
Understand security paradigm
Understand IBM Connections architecture

Installation and Migration
Pre-Install
Installing IBM WebSphere Application Server
Setting up federated repositories
Creating databases
Populating the Profiles database
Install
Install as a non-root user
How to do GUI, silent and console mode install
Post-Install
Understand post-install activities
Plan and install IBM Connections mail
IBM Cognos Install
Install IBM Cognos
Configure IBM Cognos
Understand IBM Cognos Admin Tasks
Migration
Understand Migration Options
Migrate Content Store

Security
Configure and understand administrative user for applications
Install and configure SSL certificates
Enable single sign-on
Configure the AJAX Proxy

General Administration

Run wsadmin tasks
Manage trash and disk space
Manage the Content Store
Backup and recovery
Configure IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator scripts
Setup and run sync all assembly lines
Install of fix packs v. cumulative release v. ifix
Rebuild a search index
Monitor performance, tuning
Understand the Default Scheduler
Understand SaND administration

Core IBM Connections Configuration
Changing IBM WebSphere environment variables
Customize HTTPD.conf
Configure ATOM feeds, user ID, and profile extensions in profilesconfig.xml
Configure LotusConnections-config.xml
Edit config files
Configure profile extensions
Configure Communities Catalog
Administer the News application
Disable modules
Configure moderation and notification
Configure the home page
Configure Search
Prevent the display of email addresses
Configure mobile devices

Additional Configuration
Define a reverse caching proxy
Configure IBM Connections Mail
Understand Profile events

Customization
Customize Profiles UI in profiles-config.xml
Use the Customization directory
Customize headers, footers, CSS and themes (Communities, Blogs)
Install new widgets

Integration
Business Cards
Integrate with other products

Troubleshooting
Collect data for Support via ISA Lite or manually
Enable tracing via ISA Lite or manually
Troubleshoot User Lifecycle
Verify that Profiles worker is running correctly
Troubleshoot user access issues
Troubleshoot IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
Troubleshoot inter-server communication
Troubleshoot single sign-on
Troubleshoot IBM Connections databases
Troubleshoot an IBM Connections database with database client
Troubleshoot JDBC connections
Troubleshoot customizations
Troubleshoot search
Troubleshoot plugins
Troubleshoot notifications
Troubleshoot mobile devices

IBM Certified System Administrator - Connections 4.0
Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification is intended for system administrators who plan for and perform the installation, configuration and day-to-day tasks associated with ensuring the smooth and efficient operation of an IBM Connections 4.0 environment. This includes tasks associated with:

Architecture
Installation and Migration
Security
General Administration
Configuration and Customization
Integration
Troubleshooting

This administrator is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Prerequisite skills required:
A working knowledge of IBM WebSphere Application Server, including but not limited to: the Integrated Solutions Console and WSAdmin commands.
An understanding of the relationships between IBM Connections 4.0, WebSphere Application Server, IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator, and LDAP.
A working knowledge of database software and architecture.
A basic understanding of how Connections 4.0 may integrate with other products (e.g., IBM Lotus Sametime, IBM Lotus Notes, IBM Lotus Domino, IBM WebSphere Portal).

A working knowledge of security protocols, including but not limited to securing web applications with SSL.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).
Test C2040-402 - Administering IBM Connections 4.0

QUESTION 1
Bill must perform on-line backups. Of the following, which should be the first step?

A. He must backup the database before the file system.
B. He must tell the wiki IBM WebSphere Application Server to quit.
C. He must stop the IBM HTTP Server.
D. He should open the WebSphere Application Server administration client and select on-line
backup modeling.

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
What is the default Connections DB2 username used to access Connections DB2 tables?

A. wsadmin
B. lcuser
C. lcadmin
D. dbadmin

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of the dsx-admin role?

A. It is used by all applications to control which user IDs can query for seedlist information.
B. It is used by all applications that make widgets available within Communities.
C. It is used by Profiles and Communities to retrieve user or community data.
D. It is used as a system-level user for application-to-application communications.

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements describes the role of IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator in an IBM
Connections 4.0 environment?

A. It provides a mechanism for the underlying IBM WebSphere Application Server to authenticate
against an LDAP directory.
B. It provides a mechanism to populate the Profiles database with LDAP user information and to
keep the same synchronized.
C. It provides Connectors that allow IBM WebSphere Portal server to access various file-system
directories on different systems.
D. It provides a ready-made solution to keep multiple,supported LDAP directories synchronized.

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
Kevin, the IBM Connections administrator, wants to enable IBM WebSphere Application Server
administrative security. Which of the following statements about federated repositories is true?

A. Connections 4.0 supports federated repositories,however the default file-based user registry
must be deleted.
B. Connections 4.0 supports federated repositories,and the default file based registry can coexist
with as many additional LDAP user registriesas required.
C. Connections 4.0 does not require a federated repository configuration as it supports a
standalone LDAP repository.
D. Connections 4.0 support for federated repositories provides the flexibility of allowing multiple
users with the same user ID and distinguishedname (DN).

Answer: B

Explanation:

C2040-402 Administering IBM Connections 4.0

Test information:
Number of questions: 69
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 69%
Test languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified System Administrator - Connections 4.0

Exam 402: Administering IBM Connections 4.0

Exam Competencies

Description: Covers IBM Connections material as it relates to these competency areas:
Architecture
Installation and Migration
Security
General Administration
Core IBM Connections Configuration
Additional Configuration
Customization
Integration
Troubleshooting

Architecture
Understand database environment
Understand security paradigm
Understand IBM Connections architecture

Installation and Migration
Pre-Install
Installing IBM WebSphere Application Server
Setting up federated repositories
Creating databases
Populating the Profiles database
Install
Install as a non-root user
How to do GUI, silent and console mode install
Post-Install
Understand post-install activities
Plan and install IBM Connections mail
IBM Cognos Install
Install IBM Cognos
Configure IBM Cognos
Understand IBM Cognos Admin Tasks
Migration
Understand Migration Options
Migrate Content Store

Security
Configure and understand administrative user for applications
Install and configure SSL certificates
Enable single sign-on
Configure the AJAX Proxy

General Administration

Run wsadmin tasks
Manage trash and disk space
Manage the Content Store
Backup and recovery
Configure IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator scripts
Setup and run sync all assembly lines
Install of fix packs v. cumulative release v. ifix
Rebuild a search index
Monitor performance, tuning
Understand the Default Scheduler
Understand SaND administration

Core IBM Connections Configuration
Changing IBM WebSphere environment variables
Customize HTTPD.conf
Configure ATOM feeds, user ID, and profile extensions in profilesconfig.xml
Configure LotusConnections-config.xml
Edit config files
Configure profile extensions
Configure Communities Catalog
Administer the News application
Disable modules
Configure moderation and notification
Configure the home page
Configure Search
Prevent the display of email addresses
Configure mobile devices

Additional Configuration
Define a reverse caching proxy
Configure IBM Connections Mail
Understand Profile events

Customization
Customize Profiles UI in profiles-config.xml
Use the Customization directory
Customize headers, footers, CSS and themes (Communities, Blogs)
Install new widgets

Integration
Business Cards
Integrate with other products

Troubleshooting
Collect data for Support via ISA Lite or manually
Enable tracing via ISA Lite or manually
Troubleshoot User Lifecycle
Verify that Profiles worker is running correctly
Troubleshoot user access issues
Troubleshoot IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
Troubleshoot inter-server communication
Troubleshoot single sign-on
Troubleshoot IBM Connections databases
Troubleshoot an IBM Connections database with database client
Troubleshoot JDBC connections
Troubleshoot customizations
Troubleshoot search
Troubleshoot plugins
Troubleshoot notifications
Troubleshoot mobile devices

IBM Certified System Administrator - Connections 4.0
Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification is intended for system administrators who plan for and perform the installation, configuration and day-to-day tasks associated with ensuring the smooth and efficient operation of an IBM Connections 4.0 environment. This includes tasks associated with:

Architecture
Installation and Migration
Security
General Administration
Configuration and Customization
Integration
Troubleshooting

This administrator is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Prerequisite skills required:
A working knowledge of IBM WebSphere Application Server, including but not limited to: the Integrated Solutions Console and WSAdmin commands.
An understanding of the relationships between IBM Connections 4.0, WebSphere Application Server, IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator, and LDAP.
A working knowledge of database software and architecture.
A basic understanding of how Connections 4.0 may integrate with other products (e.g., IBM Lotus Sametime, IBM Lotus Notes, IBM Lotus Domino, IBM WebSphere Portal).

A working knowledge of security protocols, including but not limited to securing web applications with SSL.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).
Test C2040-402 - Administering IBM Connections 4.0

QUESTION 1
Bill must perform on-line backups. Of the following, which should be the first step?

A. He must backup the database before the file system.
B. He must tell the wiki IBM WebSphere Application Server to quit.
C. He must stop the IBM HTTP Server.
D. He should open the WebSphere Application Server administration client and select on-line
backup modeling.

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
What is the default Connections DB2 username used to access Connections DB2 tables?

A. wsadmin
B. lcuser
C. lcadmin
D. dbadmin

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of the dsx-admin role?

A. It is used by all applications to control which user IDs can query for seedlist information.
B. It is used by all applications that make widgets available within Communities.
C. It is used by Profiles and Communities to retrieve user or community data.
D. It is used as a system-level user for application-to-application communications.

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements describes the role of IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator in an IBM
Connections 4.0 environment?

A. It provides a mechanism for the underlying IBM WebSphere Application Server to authenticate
against an LDAP directory.
B. It provides a mechanism to populate the Profiles database with LDAP user information and to
keep the same synchronized.
C. It provides Connectors that allow IBM WebSphere Portal server to access various file-system
directories on different systems.
D. It provides a ready-made solution to keep multiple,supported LDAP directories synchronized.

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
Kevin, the IBM Connections administrator, wants to enable IBM WebSphere Application Server
administrative security. Which of the following statements about federated repositories is true?

A. Connections 4.0 supports federated repositories,however the default file-based user registry
must be deleted.
B. Connections 4.0 supports federated repositories,and the default file based registry can coexist
with as many additional LDAP user registriesas required.
C. Connections 4.0 does not require a federated repository configuration as it supports a
standalone LDAP repository.
D. Connections 4.0 support for federated repositories provides the flexibility of allowing multiple
users with the same user ID and distinguishedname (DN).

Answer: B

Explanation:

Friday, February 3, 2017

C2020-605 IBM Cognos 10 Controller Developer

Test information:
Number of questions: 94
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 65%
Test languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Developer - Cognos 10 Controller

This test will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to set up a Controller application by creating account and company structures, and set up the consolidation processes such as currency conversion, intercompany transactions, and investments in subsidiaries. The successful candidate must also be able to design and generate financial reports used for financial analysis.

Create Company Structures (5%)
Distinguish between the company types
Describe how consolidation types settings affect the company structures

Create Account Structures (12%)
Describe how reconciliation between accounts settings handles reconciliation of opening balances
Describe the effect of entering an investment code for an account
Describe a scenario for using movement accounts
Identify how to generate movement accounts
Describe the effect of using statistical and non-statistical account types for movement accounts
Identify how integrated and non-integrated movement accounts affect reconciliation
Describe the benefits of connecting extended dimensions to accounts

Set up General Configuration (14%)
Distinguish between weekly/daily actualities and linked actualities
Describe the effect of enabling the advance account view setting
Describe the benefits of using multiple submission
Describe the effect of enabling Set Status for Submission to Ready After Reconciliation
Distinguish between reconciliation made by Journal Type and Closing Version
Describe how the reporting status is affected by reconciliation settings Total Difference and Difference per Row
Using Method 1, distinguish between currency conversion differences account1 and currency conversion differences account2
Describe the impact of main settings and the reserves
Explain the impact of changing account type settings

Enable Data Entry and Data Import (19%)
Distinguish between different form types
Describe the purpose of forms sets
Describe the impact of using multiple submissions with form sets
Describe any of the functions of the Form Properties
Describe how to use linked structures to limit data entry view
Distinguish between using the data entry view and the Excel link to add data
Describe the process of adding movement accounts to forms
Describe a scenario for creating a link between forms
Identify the different structures that can be imported and the process
Identify the different ways that data can be imported into Controller
Describe the process of creating an import specification

Create Journals and Closing Versions (5%)
Define the relationship between journal type and closing version
Identify the two ways to enter data into company journals
Describe scenarios for copying journals from one period to another
Determine impact of adjusting data on group journals versus company journals

Prepare for Currency Conversion (11%)
Identify when rules for currency conversion are defined
Identify the workflow for converting foreign currency
Using currency conversion Method 1, identify the commonly used currency codes for P&L accounts, Balance Sheet accounts, and Equity accounts
Distinguish between the currency register and the historical register
Describe a scenario for entering historical rates when a company rolls up to several group currencies
Distinguish between currency conversion codes C and I when converting values for a company journal

Configure the Control Tables (9%)
Explain the purpose of acquisition control tables
Explain the purpose of intercompany elimination control tables
Identify the process for enabling automatic journal entries
Identify the impact of the offset account in control tables

Eliminate and Reconcile Intercompany transactions and acquisitions (10%)
Identify when counter dimensions are used
Identify the ways intercompany balances can be eliminated
Identify the effect of storing intercompany adjustments as group journals
Identify how to enter data in the investment register for subsidiaries and associated companies
Explain scenarios when no balance control would be used in the investment register
Describe the importance of defining a start period for acquisition calculations
Describe the ways to run reports for reconciling data reported as intercompany balances
Identify the impact of using Use Online Matching

Consolidate a Group's Reported Values (5%)
Distinguish between consolidating by steps and consolidating by status
Identify the reports needed to analyze consolidation

Secure the Application and the Data (4%)
Describe the benefits of creating security groups
Describe the benefits of creating user rights
Describe how using period locking at a company level affects the closing version
Distinguish between locking the period for data entry only and locking the period entirely

Create Reports to Analyze Data (6%)
Identify the performance considerations when creating reports
Distinguish the benefits between creating a Report Generator report and an Excel Link report
Describe the Report Conversion functionality when creating user-defined reports in Controller
QUESTION 2
How can an administrator validate company structures to ensure that they meet the application's
rules?

A. Verify Structures menu
B. Verify Companies menu
C. Company structure log file
D. Consolidation structures log file

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
An administrator created a company journal. The administrator then added several transactions to
the journal. The accounts in these transactions use currency conversion code I. By default, if there
is no amount for the previous year (no local amount or converted amount), what rate is used to
convert the local amount for the current year?

A. The previous year's closing rate
B. The previous year's opening rate
C. The previous year's average rate
D. The previous year's data is not used

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
What is the difference between currency conversion codes I and C?

A. Code I uses no currency conversion for the opening balance; code C copies prior year's average rate.
B. Code C copies prior year's average rate for opening balance; code I calculates prior year's closing rate
C. Code I calculates opening balance rate, code C copies the opening balance amount.
D. Code C copies prior year's average rate; code I uses prior year's closing rate for opening balance.

Answer: C

Explanation: